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the bible said to honor thy father and thy mother, but why did Jesus address his mother only as “woman”?

Posted in Working Mothers on 7th March 2014

the bible said to honor thy father and thy mother, but why did Jesus address his mother only as “woman”?
instead of “mother” when he was talking to her, both at the wedding at Cana and at the cross?
pink, are you saying that your own mother is only just a woman, too, that don’t deserve your respect or anyone else’s?
don’t = doesn’t

Best answer(s):

Answer by ludamad
Remember, the bible is heavily translated. You have no idea of the initial connotation.

Answer by pinkstealth
To connect the dots, she IS only a woman. Unfortunately the Catholics have made sooo much more of her.

He did take care of His mother (as seen at the cross) but He also made it known in a profound way that she WAS human. He was not. She is NOT the mother of God, in any way. She was blessed of all women to be be selected for the Savior’s birth. But God is still God. And SHE is NOT His mother !

perdersen5…AMEN

Answer by Kenzie
It was a sign of respect. Mary wasn’t just his Mother, but was a great woman. But, it was a sign of respect.

Answer by pedersen5
Mark Lowry said it best, if you’re going to call your mother “woman”, you BETTER be God!

Answer by Mephisto
Do as your told, not as you see.
That is the Christian way.

Answer by patrone07
First off, Jesus never sinned and obeyed the 10 commandments the most perfect way.

Jesus (The New Adam) refers to his beloved mother as “woman”, becuase he is referring to her as the New Eve! The Blessed Virgin Mary is the “woman” prophecized in Genesis 3:15 that would crush the head of the serpent! God bless!

Answer by Joe Bloe
Before the gospels were written, Churches tried to gain esteem by declaring a close association with members of Jesus’ family.

The gospel writers overcame the problem by suggesting that such family associations were nothing special – and that even Jesus was not overly impressed by them.

Answer by peter c
God said “women” at the Wedding of Cana, and He said “woman” while dying on the cross. The beginning and the end of his of His earthly ministry.

God said “woman” in Genesis 3:15, and He said “woman” in Rev. 12: >> The only two places in scripture where you have a woman and a serpent in the same verse. Genesis and Revelation, the beginning and the end of the Bible.

“Woman” is a two fold title. Culturally, it was an honorary term at that time, not a derogatory one as in 21st white Anglo-Saxon American culture.

There are other biblical references that uses “woman” as they refer to Mary.

Rev 12:15 The serpent poured water like a river out of his mouth after the **woman**, to sweep her away with the flood. 16 But the earth came to the help of the **woman**, and the earth opened its mouth and swallowed the river which the dragon had poured from his mouth.
17 Then the dragon was angry with the **woman**, and went off to make war ON THE REST OF HER OFFSPRING, on those who keep the commandments of God and bear testimony to Jesus. And he stood on the sand of the sea..

Who could these OFFSPRING be? Ever commentator worth his salt will tell you that these offspring are the Church. How did the Blessed Virgin Mom become the Mother of the Church?

John 19:26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, **Woman**, behold thy son! 27 Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

The experiences of the “Beloved Disciple” (BD) were the focus of John’s Gospel. He is an ‘everyman’ character. St. John’s Gospel is told in such a way that the reader can identify himself with the BD and is meant to see the story of Jesus from the BD’s perspective. Whatever is addressed to the BD is addressed to the reader.

So we have established that:
1) Mary is the Mother of Jesus
2) Whose children are the Church that keeps the commandments AND honors her Son
3) Who himself explicitly designated her as the Mother of his disciples.

Answer by squirt AM VA VT
lol Pink. Go read your bible. Something’s showing and it might embarrass you.

Answer by Bill
the expression “what have I to do with you?” This is apparently a common Jewish idiom that appears a number of times in the Bible. For example, at 2 Samuel 16:10, we find David stopping Abishai from killing Shimei by saying: “What do I have to do with you men, you sons of Zeruiah? Thus let him call down evil, because Jehovah himself has said to him, ‘Call down evil upon David!’” Likewise, we read at 1 Kings 17:18 that the widow of Zarephath, upon finding that her son had died, said to Elijah: “What do I have to do with you, O man of the true God? You have come to me to bring my error to mind and to put my son to death.”

From these Bible examples, we can see that the expression “what have I to do with you?” is often used, not to show disdain or arrogance, but to refuse involvement in some proposed or suggested action or to express a difference in viewpoint or opinion.

Jesus’ reply, “What have I to do with you, woman?” is an ancient form of question that indicates an objection to what is suggested or proposed. Why does Jesus object to Mary’s words? Well, he is now 30 years of age. Just a few weeks earlier, he was baptized, anointed with holy spirit, and introduced by John the Baptizer as “the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world.” Now his direction must necessarily come from the Supreme Authority who sent him. (1 Corinthians 11:3) No one, not even a close family member, could be allowed to interfere with the work Jesus came to earth to do. What determination to do his Father’s will is expressed in Jesus’ answer to Mary!

Regarding the term “woman,” Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words notes: “Used in addressing a woman, it is a term not of reproof or severity, but of endearment or respect.” Other sources agree with this. For example, The Anchor Bible says: “This is not a rebuke, nor an impolite term, nor an indication of a lack of affection. It was Jesus’ normal, polite way of addressing women.” The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology explains that the word “is used as an address with no irreverent secondary meaning.” And Gerhard Kittel’s Theological Dictionary of the New Testament says that such usage “is in no way disrespectful or derogatory.” Thus, we should not conclude that Jesus was being rude or unkind to his mother in addressing her by the term “woman.”

I get child support from the father of my baby, even if I did not give birth?

Posted in Child Support on 1st March 2014

I get child support from the father of my baby, even if I did not give birth?
Best Answer (s):

Crystal B response
UN

Answer by Nae Harris I would not think so ….

Reply christyluvsjohn
you can not get child support until the child is born. Until then the child will live by the mother, and if they support themselves, they can the child to unterstützen.Auch when you had to “child support” for a fetus, the problem of abortions and miscarriages. If the woman come forward and support the child aborted if the condition warrants? Probably nicht.Sobald the child is born can file for child support, but they need to have some external evidence of who the father is. You can not just “name” of the Father, without this evidence. If it says “X” is the father and “X”, he does not, it can not force a paternity test without some outside firm. If a third party hear him brag about knocking her up? Did he pay you money for assistance at some point in time? Did he not write letters or any notes about “his” future fatherhood? Does anyone see them in bed together? Do they have to live together in time, she might have become pregnant? Again, it must be some external evidence back up their claim that he he needs to do the Father ist.Was is wait until some of the documents served on him then he has to officially respond that he did not believe that he is the father and that regardless of child support is not justified until the child is actually born ist.Und tell him that sex before marriage is, why and shacking is stupid.

Answer by Nicole
No, but you can get a job

Reply Cmc_x
Nope do not think that you be able to just say, I know you’re going to get help as £ 500 grant to buy baby stuff etc, but can not say, nor child support, I have tried that and it’s a real pain!

What if the father he never was able to provide child support still abandoment a warrant?

Posted in Child Support on 20th October 2013

What if the father he never was able to provide child support still abandoment a warrant?
Best Answer (s):

answer by HIS!
Depends on the laws of the state he’s in. But if a father is “to provide child support” does not mean that he is not obligated to support the child. Parents support their children. Enough said!

response of Y! Groups Dads House Ed. Middle
Yes, based only on a false allegation.